Solved Quiz Questions for Competitive Exam
1. “Jurisprudence is the Philosophy of positive law.” It is said by—
(A) Austin
(B) Paton
(C) Keeton
(D) Dias
Ans : (A)
2. “Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of the essential principles of law.” Who said it ?
(A) Allen
(B) Bentham
(C) Holland
(D) Dias
Ans : (A)
3. The subject of Hart-Fuller debate in ‘Harvard Law Review’ is—
(A) Law and Society
(B) Law and Morality
(C) Law and Liability
(D) Law and Justice
Ans : (B)
4. ‘An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth’ was the purpose of punishment according to the—
(A) Deterrent theory
(B) Preventive theory
(C) Retributive theory
(D) Reformative theory
Ans : (C)
5. An interest protected against the world at large is called—
(A) Right in strict sense
(B) Right in repropria
(C) Right in rem
(D) Right in personam
Ans : (C)
6. Which of the following jurist distinguished between Lex Aeterma, Lex Naturalis, Lex Divina and Lex Humana ?
(A) Cicero
(B) Justinian
(C) St. Thomas Acquinas
(D) Plato
Ans : (C)
7. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Jurisprudence is Lawyers extra version.
(b) Source of Law is Volkgeist.
(c) Law is a union of primary and secondary rules.
(d) Legal system is a pyramidal structure of norms.
List-II
1. Hart
2. Kelsen
3. Julius stone
4. Savigny
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (C)
8. “Ownership is a plenary control over an object.” This definition is given by—
(A) Paton
(B) Pollock
(C) Holland
(D) Kelson
Ans : (C)
9. Which of the following Jurists has explained legal rights and duties in terms of Jural correlations and jural opposites ?
(A) Hohfeld
(B) Mansfield
(C) Holland
(D) Holmes
Ans : (A)
10. According to Sir Henry Maine, the movement of progressive societies has been a movement from—
(A) Status to social contract
(B) Natural law to positive law
(C) Custom to legislation
(D) Status to contract
Ans : (D)
11. “The purpose of law is to bring pleasure and avoid pain.” Who said it ?
(A) Bentham
(B) Salmond
(C) Kelsen
(D) Hobbes
Ans : (A)
12. The exponent of theory of ‘Social Engineering’ is—
(A) Roscoe Pound
(B) Comte
(C) Duguit
(D) Ihering
Ans : (A)
13. Who is the author of the book ‘Concept of Law’ ?
(A) H.L.A. Hart
(B) Austin
(C) Bentham
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
14. Who among the following said that legislation is ‘formal utterance (statement) of legislative organs of the society’ ?
(A) Dias
(B) Allen
(C) Gray
(D) Black stone
Ans : (C)
15. THe celebrated essay ‘Determining Ratio Decendi of case’ was written by—
(A) Goodhart
(B) Winfield
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Julius stone
Ans : (A)
16. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Historical School
(b) Vienna School
(c) Natural Law School
(d) Sociological School
List-II
1. Duguit 2. Stammler
3. Kelsen 4. Puchta
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : (B)
17. “The only right which any man can possess is the right always to do his duty”, said by—
(A) Roscoe Pound
(B) Ihering
(C) Ehrlich
(D) Duguit
Ans : (D)
18. “Law grows with a nation, increases with it and dies at its dissolution and is a characteristic of it.” This is the view of—
(A) Natural Law School
(B) Historical School
(C) Analytical School
(D) Sociological School
Ans : (B)
19. The main purpose of the ‘Corporate Sole’ is to—
(A) Make the property easily inheritable
(B) Make the property easily transferable
(C) Maintain countinuity of an office
(D) Protect the property of State
Ans : (C)
20. Dealing with sources of law who from amongst the following says that “The courts put life into the dead words of statutes” ?
(A) Holland
(B) Gray
(C) Salmond
(D) Austin
Ans : (B)
21. Analytical, Historical and Ethical Jurisprudence are three different parts of the Jurisprudence, according to—
(A) Salmond
(B) Ihering
(C) Hart
(D) Immanuel Kant
Ans : (A)
22. Even though Emergency is proclaimed, the enforcement of following rights through courts cannot be suspended—
(A) Art. 14, 19 and 21
(B) Art. 20, 21 and 22
(C) Art. 19 and 21
(D) Art. 20 and 21
Ans : (D)
23. Powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and its members are provided under—
(A) Article–105
(B) Article–106
(C) Article–107
(D) Article–194
Ans : (A)
24. In which of the following cases Supreme Court has condemned cruelty or torture during Police custody as being violative of Art 21 ?
(A) Francis Coralie Vs. Union of Territory of Delhi
(B) Menaka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
(C) P. Rethiram Vs. Union of India
(D) Olga Tellis Vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation
Ans : (A)
25. Which Article of the Constitution provides that an advice tendered by Ministers to the President Shall not be inquired into in any court ?
(A) Article–74(1)
(B) Article–74(2)
(C) Article–75
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
26. In order to prevent defection of Members of Parliament, Clause (2) in Article 102 and Schedule X were added—
(A) By Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976
(B) By Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978
(C) By Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
27. Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India can be enlarged—
(A) By Chief Justice of India
(B) By President of India
(C) By Parliament by Law
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
28. “The State shall endeavour to promote international peace and security.” is provided in—
(A) Article-48A
(B) Article-49
(C) Article-50
(D) Article-51
Ans : (D)
29. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation is applied where—
(A) Legislature acts within its Jurisdiction
(B) Legislature acts beyond its Jurisdiction
(C) Legislature acts apparently within its jurisdiction but actually acts beyond its Jurisdiction
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
30. The case of S. R. Bommai Vs. Union of India (1994) is related to—
(A) Parliamentary Privileges
(B) Freedom of Press
(C) Imposition of President’s Rule
(D) Right to Equality
Ans : (C)
31. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) The Constitution (52th Amendment)
(b) The Constitution (86th Amendment)
(c) The Constitution (1st Amendment)
(d) The Constitution (93rd Amendment)
List-II
1. Reservation in election
2. Ninth Schedule
3. Tenth Schedule
4. Right to Education
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (B)
32. “The Indian Constitution provides a Unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than Federal State with subsidiary Unitary features.” This statement is of—
(A) Sir Ivor Jennings
(B) K. C. Wheare
(C) A. V. Dicey
(D) S.A. de Smith
Ans : (B)
33. The case of A. R. Antulay Vs. R. S. Nayak (1988) is related to—
(A) Article-12
(B) Preamble of the Constitution
(C) Article-311
(D) Article-368
Ans : (A)
34. Which Provision of the Constitution imposes a duty on the centre to ensure that the Government of the State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution ?
(A) Article-352
(B) Article-355
(C) Article-356
(D) Article-360
Ans : (B)
35. Doctrine of Pleasure applies to—
(A) Article-15(4)
(B) Article-16(4)
(C) Article-356
(D) Article-310
Ans : (D)
36. Preamble of the Constitution declares India to be a—
(A) Secular Socialist Sovereign Democratic Republic
(B) Socialist Secular Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
(D) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Ans : (D)
37. The appointment of Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is provided under—
(A) Article-48
(B) Article-147
(C) Article-149
(D) Article-148
Ans : (D)
38. To whom the Speaker of Lok Sabha should address his letter of resignation ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans : (C)
39. Which one of the following writs can be issued only against judicial and quasi judicial authorities ?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Quo Warranto
Ans : (C)
40. Who elects the Vice President of India ?
(A) Members of Rajya Sabha only
(B) Members of Lok Sabha only
(C) Members of both the Houses of Parliament
(D) Members of all State Legislatures
Ans : (C)
41. Appellate Jurisdiction of Supreme Court in regard to criminal matters is stated in Article.
(A) 131
(B) 132
(C) 136
(D) 134
Ans : (D)
42. The President of India has power to grant pardon under which Article ?
(A) 172
(B) 74
(C) 72
(D) 92
Ans : (C)
43. According to which decision of the Supreme Court, the state cannot impose its reservation policy upon any unaided private professional educational institution ?
(A) M. Nagaraj Vs. Union of India
(B) P. A. Inamdar Vs. State of Maharashtra
(C) TMA Pai foundation Vs.State of Karnataka
(D) Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India
Ans : (B)
44. Establishment of Public Service Commission for the Union and for the States is provided under—
(A) Article–316
(B) Article–319
(C) Article–315
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
45. Who among the following is Sovereign in India ?
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) We the people of India
Ans : (D)
46. How many States signed the charter of United Nations at San Francisco in 1945 ?
(A) 41
(B) 15
(C) 51
(D) 52
Ans : (C)
47. The first Woman judge of International Court of Justice is—
(A) Rosalyn Higgins
(B) Rosa E. Otumbiyeva
(C) Gertrude Mongella
(D) Sadako Ogata
Ans : (A)
48. Who formulated the theory of ‘Pacta Sunt Sirvanda’ to explain the basis of international law ?
(A) By Kelsen
(B) By Oppenheim
(C) By Starke
(D) By Anzilotti
Ans : (D)
49. Under which Article of the U.N. Charter, the Security Council may use armed force against a State ?
(A) 42
(B) 45
(C) 41
(D) 51
Ans : (A)
50. Who said “A State is and becomes an international person through recognition only exclusively” ?
(A) Holland
(B) Hall
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Starke
Ans : (C)


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