Gautam Buddh Technical University (GBTU)
(Earlier : Lucknow College of Architecture and Govt. College of Architecture)
Faculty of Architecture
Tagore Marg, Lucknow – 226007

Applications on the prescribed forms are invited for the following faculty posts on regular basis :

1. Professor (Architecture) : 02 posts, Pay Scale : 37400-67000 AGP 10000

2. Associate Professor (Architecture) : 03 posts, Pay Scale : ₨.37400-67000 AGP 9000

3. Assistant Professor (Architecture) : 02 posts, Pay Scale : ₨.15600-39100 AGP 6000

How to Apply : Applications on the prescribed forms duly filled, should reach the office of the Dean of Faculty, Gautam Buddh Technical University, Tagore , Lucknow – 226021 latest by 29/10/2011.

Please view http://www.foa.uptu.ac.in/Documents/NewsUpdateAnnouncements/uploads/combined_application_form_faculty_positions_gbtu_16spt10.pdf for details and application format.

Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
(Government of India Undertaking)
BHEL House, Siri Fort, New Delhi-110049

BHEL invites Online Application from young and energetic Graduate Engineers and for recruitment of Engineer Trainees :

Engineer Trainee : 800 posts (Mechanical – 550, Electrical – 175, Electronics – 75 ), Stipend : Rs. 20600/- in the training period and will be absorbed as Engineer in the scale of pay of Rs. 24900 – 50500/-, Age : 27 years for Graduate Engineers and 29 years for PG in Engineering.

How to Apply : Those who wants to apply for the post of Engineer Trainee in BHEL will be required to take the GATE-2012 which are advertised on 11/09/2011. The score of GATE will be utilized by the BHEL for invited candidates for interview.

Candidates need to apply Online from 04/01/2012 at the BHEL website only after registration in GATE-2011.

Application Fee : Rs.500/- for Engieer Trainee and Rs.300/- for Supervisor Trainee to be paid in the SBI throughout the country by prescribed challan only. (SC/ST/PH candidates are exempted from the fee)

Please visit http://careers.bhel.in/bhel/jsp/index.jsp or all the details and Online submission of application

1. “Jurisprudence is the Philosophy of positive law.” It is said by—
(A) Austin
(B) Paton
(C) Keeton
(D) Dias
Ans : (A)
2. “Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of the essential principles of law.” Who said it ?
(A) Allen
(B) Bentham
(C) Holland
(D) Dias
Ans : (A)
3. The subject of Hart-Fuller debate in ‘Harvard Law Review’ is—
(A) Law and Society
(B) Law and Morality
(C) Law and Liability
(D) Law and Justice
Ans : (B)
4. ‘An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth’ was the purpose of punishment according to the—
(A) Deterrent theory
(B) Preventive theory
(C) Retributive theory
(D) Reformative theory
Ans : (C)
5. An interest protected against the world at large is called—
(A) Right in strict sense
(B) Right in repropria
(C) Right in rem
(D) Right in personam
Ans : (C)
6. Which of the following jurist distinguished between Lex Aeterma, Lex Naturalis, Lex Divina and Lex Humana ?
(A) Cicero
(B) Justinian
(C) St. Thomas Acquinas
(D) Plato
Ans : (C)
7. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Jurisprudence is Lawyers extra version.
(b) Source of Law is Volkgeist.
(c) Law is a union of primary and secondary rules.
(d) Legal system is a pyramidal structure of norms.
List-II
1. Hart
2. Kelsen
3. Julius stone
4. Savigny
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (C)
8. “Ownership is a plenary control over an object.” This definition is given by—
(A) Paton
(B) Pollock
(C) Holland
(D) Kelson
Ans : (C)
9. Which of the following Jurists has explained legal rights and duties in terms of Jural correlations and jural opposites ?
(A) Hohfeld
(B) Mansfield
(C) Holland
(D) Holmes
Ans : (A)
10. According to Sir Henry Maine, the movement of progressive societies has been a movement from—
(A) Status to social contract
(B) Natural law to positive law
(C) Custom to legislation
(D) Status to contract
Ans : (D)
11. “The purpose of law is to bring pleasure and avoid pain.” Who said it ?
(A) Bentham
(B) Salmond
(C) Kelsen
(D) Hobbes
Ans : (A)
12. The exponent of theory of ‘Social Engineering’ is—
(A) Roscoe Pound
(B) Comte
(C) Duguit
(D) Ihering
Ans : (A)
13. Who is the author of the book ‘Concept of Law’ ?
(A) H.L.A. Hart
(B) Austin
(C) Bentham
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
14. Who among the following said that legislation is ‘formal utterance (statement) of legislative organs of the society’ ?
(A) Dias
(B) Allen
(C) Gray
(D) Black stone
Ans : (C)
15. THe celebrated essay ‘Determining Ratio Decendi of case’ was written by—
(A) Goodhart
(B) Winfield
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Julius stone
Ans : (A)
16. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Historical School
(b) Vienna School
(c) Natural Law School
(d) Sociological School
List-II
1. Duguit 2. Stammler
3. Kelsen 4. Puchta
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : (B)
17. “The only right which any man can possess is the right always to do his duty”, said by—
(A) Roscoe Pound
(B) Ihering
(C) Ehrlich
(D) Duguit
Ans : (D)
18. “Law grows with a nation, increases with it and dies at its dissolution and is a characteristic of it.” This is the view of—
(A) Natural Law School
(B) Historical School
(C) Analytical School
(D) Sociological School
Ans : (B)
19. The main purpose of the ‘Corporate Sole’ is to—
(A) Make the property easily inheritable
(B) Make the property easily transferable
(C) Maintain countinuity of an office
(D) Protect the property of State
Ans : (C)
20. Dealing with sources of law who from amongst the following says that “The courts put life into the dead words of statutes” ?
(A) Holland
(B) Gray
(C) Salmond
(D) Austin
Ans : (B)
21. Analytical, Historical and Ethical Jurisprudence are three different parts of the Jurisprudence, according to—
(A) Salmond
(B) Ihering
(C) Hart
(D) Immanuel Kant
Ans : (A)
22. Even though Emergency is proclaimed, the enforcement of following rights through courts cannot be suspended—
(A) Art. 14, 19 and 21
(B) Art. 20, 21 and 22
(C) Art. 19 and 21
(D) Art. 20 and 21
Ans : (D)
23. Powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and its members are provided under—
(A) Article–105
(B) Article–106
(C) Article–107
(D) Article–194
Ans : (A)
24. In which of the following cases Supreme Court has condemned cruelty or torture during Police custody as being violative of Art 21 ?
(A) Francis Coralie Vs. Union of Territory of Delhi
(B) Menaka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
(C) P. Rethiram Vs. Union of India
(D) Olga Tellis Vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation
Ans : (A)
25. Which Article of the Constitution provides that an advice tendered by Ministers to the President Shall not be inquired into in any court ?
(A) Article–74(1)
(B) Article–74(2)
(C) Article–75
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
26. In order to prevent defection of Members of Parliament, Clause (2) in Article 102 and Schedule X were added—
(A) By Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976
(B) By Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978
(C) By Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
27. Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India can be enlarged—
(A) By Chief Justice of India
(B) By President of India
(C) By Parliament by Law
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
28. “The State shall endeavour to promote international peace and security.” is provided in—
(A) Article-48A
(B) Article-49
(C) Article-50
(D) Article-51
Ans : (D)
29. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation is applied where—
(A) Legislature acts within its Jurisdiction
(B) Legislature acts beyond its Jurisdiction
(C) Legislature acts apparently within its jurisdiction but actually acts beyond its Jurisdiction
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
30. The case of S. R. Bommai Vs. Union of India (1994) is related to—
(A) Parliamentary Privileges
(B) Freedom of Press
(C) Imposition of President’s Rule
(D) Right to Equality
Ans : (C)
31. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) The Constitution (52th Amendment)
(b) The Constitution (86th Amendment)
(c) The Constitution (1st Amendment)
(d) The Constitution (93rd Amendment)
List-II
1. Reservation in election
2. Ninth Schedule
3. Tenth Schedule
4. Right to Education
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (B)
32. “The Indian Constitution provides a Unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than Federal State with subsidiary Unitary features.” This statement is of—
(A) Sir Ivor Jennings
(B) K. C. Wheare
(C) A. V. Dicey
(D) S.A. de Smith
Ans : (B)
33. The case of A. R. Antulay Vs. R. S. Nayak (1988) is related to—
(A) Article-12
(B) Preamble of the Constitution
(C) Article-311
(D) Article-368
Ans : (A)
34. Which Provision of the Constitution imposes a duty on the centre to ensure that the Government of the State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution ?
(A) Article-352
(B) Article-355
(C) Article-356
(D) Article-360
Ans : (B)
35. Doctrine of Pleasure applies to—
(A) Article-15(4)
(B) Article-16(4)
(C) Article-356
(D) Article-310
Ans : (D)
36. Preamble of the Constitution declares India to be a—
(A) Secular Socialist Sovereign Democratic Republic
(B) Socialist Secular Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
(D) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Ans : (D)
37. The appointment of Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is provided under—
(A) Article-48
(B) Article-147
(C) Article-149
(D) Article-148
Ans : (D)
38. To whom the Speaker of Lok Sabha should address his letter of resignation ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans : (C)
39. Which one of the following writs can be issued only against judicial and quasi judicial authorities ?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Quo Warranto
Ans : (C)
40. Who elects the Vice President of India ?
(A) Members of Rajya Sabha only
(B) Members of Lok Sabha only
(C) Members of both the Houses of Parliament
(D) Members of all State Legislatures
Ans : (C)
41. Appellate Jurisdiction of Supreme Court in regard to criminal matters is stated in Article.
(A) 131
(B) 132
(C) 136
(D) 134
Ans : (D)
42. The President of India has power to grant pardon under which Article ?
(A) 172
(B) 74
(C) 72
(D) 92
Ans : (C)
43. According to which decision of the Supreme Court, the state cannot impose its reservation policy upon any unaided private professional educational institution ?
(A) M. Nagaraj Vs. Union of India
(B) P. A. Inamdar Vs. State of Maharashtra
(C) TMA Pai foundation Vs.State of Karnataka
(D) Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India
Ans : (B)
44. Establishment of Public Service Commission for the Union and for the States is provided under—
(A) Article–316
(B) Article–319
(C) Article–315
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
45. Who among the following is Sovereign in India ?
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) We the people of India
Ans : (D)
46. How many States signed the charter of United Nations at San Francisco in 1945 ?
(A) 41
(B) 15
(C) 51
(D) 52
Ans : (C)
47. The first Woman judge of International Court of Justice is—
(A) Rosalyn Higgins
(B) Rosa E. Otumbiyeva
(C) Gertrude Mongella
(D) Sadako Ogata
Ans : (A)
48. Who formulated the theory of ‘Pacta Sunt Sirvanda’ to explain the basis of international law ?
(A) By Kelsen
(B) By Oppenheim
(C) By Starke
(D) By Anzilotti
Ans : (D)
49. Under which Article of the U.N. Charter, the Security Council may use armed force against a State ?
(A) 42
(B) 45
(C) 41
(D) 51
Ans : (A)
50. Who said “A State is and becomes an international person through recognition only exclusively” ?
(A) Holland
(B) Hall
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Starke
Ans : (C)

1. Animal assisted therapy is employed in-
(1) operations
(2) ICU
(3) old age homes
(4) training animals
(5) natural healing

2. In broad gauge, the distance between the rail is-
(1) 1.00 meter
(2) 3 meters
(3) 1.67 meters
(4) 2.67 meters
(5) 0.76 meter

3. Who is lndra Nooyi?
(1) CEO Coca Cola
(2) CFO Pepsi Co.
(3) Managing Director Nano Division
(4) India’s permanent representative to UNO
(5) None of these

4. ET Now and CNBC TVI8, TV Channels essentially broadcast-
(1) English news
(2) classic English movies
(3) political events and news
(4) business and economic news
(5) all important national and international news in English

5. Amongst the following sportsmen/women, who has won the first gold medal at Guangzhou Asian Games?
(1) Yuan Xiachao
(2) Wang Mingluen
(3) Zhu Oianward
(4) Takeshi Matsuda
(5) Wu Jingbiao

6. The synagogue is generally -
(1) an epic
(2) a religion
(3) Jewish House of Prayer
(4) the Parsi temple
(5) a palace

7. Deuce is a term used in-
(a) Polo (b) lawn tennis (c) badminton (d) boxing (e) Volley ball
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) c, d, a (4) a, b, e (5) b, c, e

8. ISl is the intelligence agency of-
(1) United Kingdom
(2) United States of America
(3) Israel
(4) Pakistan
(5) India

9. Air Traffic Controller’s job involves-
(a) control of air traffic in and within vicinity of airport
(b) control of movement of air traffic between altitude, sectors and control centres
(c) following established procedures and policies for air traffic control
(d) control of commercial airline flights according to government regulations
(e) to authorize and regulate commercial airline flights
(1) (a), (b)
(2) (b), (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
(5) (c), (d), (e)

10 The eleventh ‘five year plan’ of India is for the five years ranging from-
(1) 2009-2014
(2) 2008-2013
(3) 2007 – 2012
(4) 2006 -2011
(5) none of these

11 DSCR indicates the ability of a company to-
(1) meet its current liabilities
(3) meet its long term debt obligations
(4) raise further capital
(5) none of these

12. An IPO is -
(1). initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders
(2) an offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the first time to the public
(3) used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(4) a book building process
(5) none of these

13 A decreasing current ratio indicates-
(1) a stable liquidity
(2) an increasing liquidity
(3) a strained liquidity
(4) satisfactory current solvency
(5) none of these

14. Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on-
(1) the age of the company (2) the location of the company
(3) the activity undertaken-by the company
(4) the credibility and the valuation of the company
(5) the existing profitability of the company

15. With which one of the following fields was Satyajit Ray associated?
(1) Films
(2) Sports
(3) Social work
(4) Drama
(5) Short Stories

16. “Daniel Vettroi’ is captain of which one of the following teams?
(1) New Zealand Cricket Team
(2) South Africa Cricket Team
(3) New Zealand Basket Ball Team
(4) West Indies Cricket Team
(5) Australia Cricket Team

17. Who amongst the following carried Indian Tricolour at Guangzhou Asian Games?
(1) Sania Mirza
(2) Saina Nehwal
(3) Gagart Narang
(4) Suranjay Singh
(5) Randhir Singh

18. Financial ratio analysis of a company helps in understanding-
(a) the long term debt raissig capacity
(b) the short term solvency
(c) the reasons for fluctuafions in its stock prices
(d) the net worth of the company
(e) the profitability
(1)a, b, c,d (2) b, c, d (3) c, d,e, (4) c,a,b,d (5)a,b,d,e

19. Human breath is visible in winter but not in summer because-
(1) the difference in outside pressure gives visibility to breath
(2) breath contains certain impurities and visible matters
(3) water vapour in breath condenses in cold air, making it visible
(4) breath has heat in it which evaporates in cold air giving visibility
(5) none of these

20. Which of the following is/are not the names of Seven North-Eastern States?
(a) Jorhat (b) Manipur (c) Meghalaya (d) Agartala (e) Dimapur
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) c, d, a (4) a, d, b (5) a, d, e

21. According to a recent newspaper survey, which one of the following is the most preferred language for leisure reading among the Indian Youth?
(1) Hindi
(2) Marathi
(3) Bengali
(4) Telugu
(5) English

22. Who is Dr. C. Rangarajan?
(1) Chairman, PMEAC
(2) Member, Planning Commission
(3) Chief Economist, IBA
(4) RBI Governor
(5) Member, Minority Commission

23. Which of the following is an oilseed?
(1) Garlic
(2) Clove
(3) Cardamom
(4) Cumin Seed
(5) Mustard

24. The RBI reviews its credit and monetary policy at regular intervals and also in between What is the purpose of the same?
(A) To ensure that inflation does not cross the limit.
(B) To ensure that banks have enough liquidity.
(C) To ensure that cost of the fund does not reach a very high level.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) All (A), (B), (C) (4) Only (B) & (C) (5) None of these

25. The name of the white revolution is associated with —
(1) J. V. Narlikar
(2) J. C. Bose
(3) Kurien Verghese
(4) M. S. Swaminathan
(5) C. Rangarajan

26. The cabinet committee recently approved the ‘IGMSY’ a scheme for the welfare of the people of India. Who amongst the following will get the benefit of the schame?
(1) Mothers and pregnant women
(2) Children upto 12 years of age
(3) Youth
(4) Old and Senior Citizens
(5) All the above

27. The Govt. of India provides direct financial support to which of the following schemes?
(1) Jeevan Bharati Scheme
(2) ULIP
(3) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana
(4) Packing Credit Guarantee Scheme
(5) All of the above

28. Who amongst the following is a famous Urdu author / poet who received Jnanpith Award recently?
(1) Akhlaq Khan Shahryar
(2) ONV Kurup
(3) Khushwant Singh
(4) Krishna Sobti
(5) None of these

29. Who amongst the following is the author of the Book “A Bend in the River” ?
(1) V.S. Naipaul
(2) Arun Shourie
(3) Octavia Paz
(4) Daniel Defoe
(5) Walter Scott

30. Which of the following is called the pink city of India?
(1) Kolkata
(2) Lucknow
(3) Kota
(4) Hyderabad
(5) Jaipur

31. Which of the following states got a new Chief Minister without new assembly elections?
(1) Goa
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Jharkahnad
(4) Gujarat
(5) Delhi

32. A two days National level conference/event was organized in Chandigarh in September 2010. Which was the conference/event?
(1) Miss India 2010′
(2) Asian Women Hockey Finals 2010
(3) ‘Conference of the Finance Ministers of SAARC
(4) National Rabi Conference
(5) None of these

33. Which of the following Summits took place h Hanoi in October 2010?
(1) ASEAN Summit
(2) SAARC Summit
(3) G 20 summit
(4) G-8 Summit
(5) None of these

34. The Reserve Bank does not have an office in -
(1) Kanpur
(2) Jaipur
(3) Lucknow
(4) Bhopal
(5) Gulbarga

35. A Badminton player is supposed to know the meaning of the term-
(1) Bouncer
(2) Love
(3) LBW
(4) Punch
(5) Booster

36. Who amongst the following is the receipientof the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Awart 2010?
(1) Ishant Sharma
(2) Hariom Singh
(3) M.S. Dhoni
(4) Sushil Kumar
(5) Saina Nehwal

37. India extended a credit of US$250 million to which of the following countries, which will be used for infrastruclural development there? .
(1) China
(2) Pakistan
(3) Myanmar
(4) Nepal
(5) Sudan

38. Which one of the following makes a case for intensive, modem farming?
(1) Higher output using organic method
(2) Remunerative price
(3) Cropping pattern
(4) Land acquisition for non-agricultural needs
(5) None of these

39. In which one of the following States multi-thousand-foodgrain scam has recently been noticed by the High Court?
(1) M.P.
(2) Orissa
(3) Bihar
(4) Jharkhand
(5) U.P.

40. Which one of the following is the objective of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) issued by the Government?
(1) To ensure that Companies take steps for rehabilitation of project affected people
(2) To ensure that Companies use some of their profits for educating the project affected people
(3) To ensure that Companies provide health care to project affected people
(4) To ensure that Companies take preventive measures to avoid environmental damage
(5) None of these

41. A hockey player is supposed to know the. meaning of the term-
(1) Deaa Ball
(2) Bouncer
(3) LBW
(4) Penalty Corner
(5) Frozen Ball

42. Which one of the following have provided bailout package to Ireland to deal with its debt crisis?
(1) EU only
(2) IMF only
(3) World Bank only
(4) Only (1) and (2) above
(5) All (1), (2) and (3) above

43. Which one of the following Indian Company is the only company from India to be included in the Top Ten 2010 Value creators Global Ranking released by global management consulting firm BCG?
(1) RIL
(2) Tata Steel
(3) Bharti Airtel
(4) JSPL
(5) Bajaj Auto

44 Which one of the following has launched guidebook on standards for exporters? .
(1) RBI
(2) SEBI
(3) IBA
(4) UNIDO
(5) UNESCO

45. BIPA with Sudan comes into effect was the news in various newspapers recently. It is an agreement for-
(1) Investmept in a country
(2) Peaceful use of atomic power
(3) Allowing students to visit each other’s nation
(4) Allowing people to come for medical treatment
(5) To form an alliance with each other in case of a war

46. In which one of the following sports Sandhya Rani Devi bagged Silver in Asiad 2010 Games
(1) Shooting
(2) Squash
(3) Taekwondo
(4) Ten-pin bowling
(5) Wushu

47. Which of the following terms is normally NOT seen in the field of International Relations?
(1) Exchange Rate
(2) Free Trade
(3) MFN
(4) Alluvial Soil
(5) OECD

48. According to mid term review of Indian economy, which one of the following segments will be the major contributor to GDP growth?
(1) Agriculture
(2) Industry
(3) Services
(4) Mining
(5) None of these

49. Which of the following films directed by Aamir Khan was sent for OSCARs Award nominations from India? .
(1) Rang De Basanti
(2) Peepli Live
(3) Tare Zamin Par
(4) Lagan
(5) None of these

50. In which one of the following states, population growth rate is lower than national average?
(1) Delhi
(2) Gujarat
(3) Chhattisgarh
(4) Himachal Pradesh
(5) Orissa

Answer:

(1) 3 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 5 (5) 1 (6) 3 (7) 5 ( 8 ) 4 (9) 2 (10) 3 (11) 3 (12) 1 (13)3 (14) 4 (15) 1 (16) 1 (17) 3 (18) 3 (19) 3 (20) 5 (21) 5 (22) 1 (23) 5 (24) 3 (25) 3
(26)1 (27)3 (28)1 (29)1 (30) 5 (31) 3 (32) 5 (33) 1 (34) 5 (35) 2 (36) 5 (37) 4 (38) 4 (39) 5 (40) 1 (41) 4 (42) 1 (43) 1 (44) 4 (45) 1 (46)5 (47) 4 (48)1 (49) 2 (50) 3

1. Gautam Buddha had attained Mahaparinibban in the State of
(a) Anga
(b) Magadha
(c) Malla
(d) Vatsa
Answer- c
Explanation: After the Buddha passed away, prominent monks spent the rest of the night discussing the teachings. At dawn, the Venerable Ananda informed the Mallas of Kusinara of the Mahaparinibbana (death) of the Master. For seven days the Mallas and throngs of people paid respect to the body of the Blessed One with lights, incense, garlands of flowers, instrumental music and religious songs. For the cremation ceremonies, a pyre of perfumed wood and flowers was prepared. The body of the Buddha was cremated with honor due the Greatest King.

2. Buddha had delivered maximum sermons at
(a) Vaishali
(b) Sravasti
(b) Kaushambi
(d) Rajgriha
Answer-b
Explanation: It was at Sarnath Lord Buddha delivered his first sermon to his disciples for whom he left Bodh Gaya. In this sermon he had preached the middle path of attaining the “Nirvana” that avoids the extremes of pleasure and austerity, the four noble truths and the eightfold path. Buddha had delivered maximum sermons at Sravasti.

3. The first Gupta ruler who issued coins was
(a) Srigupta
(b) Chandragupta I
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Chandragupta II
Answer-b
Explanation: Chandragupta- I introduced a new era, the Gupta era and the first Gupta king to adapt the title Maharajadhiraja and issued gold coins.

4. The Prince who was responsible for the death of his father was
(a) Ajatsatru
(b) Chandapradyota
(c) Prasenjit
(d) Udayana
Answer-a
Explanation: Ajātashatru was a king of the Magadha empire in north India. He was the son of King Bimbisara, the Great Monarch of Magadha. He was contemporary to Lord Mahavira and Lord Buddha. He took over the kingdom of Magadha from his father forcefully by imprisoning him who is said to have starved him to death. He fought a terrible war against the Vajjis/Lichhvis and conquered the once considered invincible democratic Vaishali Republic.

5. Who among the following was the earliest Sufi Saint to have settled at Ajmer?
(a) Sheikh Moinuddin Chisti
(b) Sheikh Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Qaki
(c) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya
(d) Sheikh Salim Chisti
Answer-a
Explanation: Mu’īnuddīn Chishtī reached Ajmer along with Mohammad of Ghori, and settled down there. In Ajmer, he attracted a substantial following, acquiring a great deal of respect amongst the residents of the city. Mu’īnuddīn Chishtī practiced the Sufi Sulh-e-Kul (peace to all) concept to promote understanding between Muslims and non-Muslims. Mu’īnuddīn Chishtī, Bakhtiyar Kaki, Baba Farid and Nizamuddin Auliya (each successive person being the disciple of the previous one), constitutes the great Sufi saints of Indian history.
Shaikh Salim was Sufi saint during Mughal Empire in South Asia. Salim Chishti was one of the famous Sufi saints of the Chishti Order in India. Salim Chishti was the descendant of the famous Khawaja Moinuddin Chishti whose tomb is in Ajmer, Rajasthan.

6. With which Mughal General did Shivaji singh the famous Treaty of Purandhar’ in 1665 A.D.?
(a) Jaswant Singh
(b) Jai Singh
(c) Shaishta Khan
(d) Diler Khan
Answer-b
Explanation: The Treaty of Purandar was signed on June 11, 1665, between the Rajput ruler Jai Singh I, who was commander of the Mughal Empire, and Maratha Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj. Shivaji was forced to sign the agreement after Jai Singh besieged Purandar fort. When Shivaji realised that war with the Mughal Empire would only cause damage to the empire and that his men would suffer heavy losses, he chose to make a treaty instead of leaving his men under the Mughals.

7. During the 13th and 14th centuries A.D. the Indian peasants did not cultivate.
(a) Wheat
(b) Bareley
(c) Rice
(d) Maize
Answer-d
Explanation: Maize in India is a post-Columbian introduction by the Portuguese in the 16th century or later.

8. The writer of Mahabhasya ‘Patanjali’ was a contemporary of
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Pushyamitra Sunga
(d) Chandragupta I
Answer-c
Explanation: The Sunga Empire played an imperative role in patronizing Indian culture at a time when some of the most important developments in Hindu thought were taking place. Patanjali`s Yoga Sutras and Mahabhasya were composed in this period. Panini composed the first Sanskrit grammarian Ashtadayai during the reign of the Sunga dynasty. Artistry also progressed with the rise of the Mathura school of art.

9. Who among the following was the founder of Agra
(a) Balban
(b) Bahlol Lodhi
(c) Sikandar Lodhi
(d)Firoz Tughlaq
Answer-c
Explanation: Sikandar Lodi seized Agra and during his reign, the city flourished as an important cultural centre. However, the claims of Niamatullah, the chronicler of the Lodhi dynasty, that Sikandar founded the city are unacceptable, as it had been mentioned in earlier records. The only claim that could be justified was that Agra came to be known as the Shiraz of India during Sikandar Lodi’s time.

10. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched
(a) Ajmer- Quuwal-al-Islam
(b) Jaunpur- Atala Mosque
(c) Malwa- Jahaz Mahal
(d) Gulbarga- Jama Masjid
Answer-a
Explanation: Jama Masjid Gulbarga, reputed to have been built by a Moorish architect during the late 14th or early 15th century who imitated the great mosque in Cordoba, Spain. The Jaunpur Atala Masjid was built by Sultan Ibrahim (1401–1440), Sharqi Sultan of Jaunpur on foundations laid during the reign of Tughluq Sultan Firuz Shah III (1351–1388). Jahaz Mahal is believed to have been constructed during the reign of Mahmud Shah Khalji. It was commissioned by Ghiyas al-Din. The Jahaz Mahal in Mandu, Malwa is located on a narrow strip of land between the two lakes.

11. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:
1) Vikram Samvat began in 58 BC
2) Saka Samvat began in 78 AD.
3) Gupta era began in 319 AD.
4) The era of Muslim rule in India began in 1192 AD.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
Answer-c
Explanation: Vikram Samvat was introduced in 57 B.C. and hence if 57 is deducted from Vikram Samvat
year we get Christian year. e.g. V.S. 2054 – 57 = A.D. 1997. The Saka Samvat or Era commenced in B.C. 78 during Saka Kshatrap Nahpan’s time. By adding 78 to Saka year, we get Christian year. e.g. Saka 1752 + 78 = A.D. 1830. In A.D. 320 Chandragupta I succeeded his father Ghatotkacha. It is said that he laid the
foundation of great Gupta Empire. In the 8th century, the province of Sindh (in present day Pakistan) was conquered by an Arab army led by Muhammad bin Qasim. Sindh became the easternmost province of the Umayyad Caliphate. In the first half of the 10th century, Mahmud of Ghazni added the Punjab to the Ghaznavid Empire and conducted several raids deeper into modern day India.

12. Which one of the following rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?
(a) Haider Ali
(b) Mir Qusim
(c) ShahAlam II
(d) Tipu Sultan
Answer-d
Explanation: Tipu Sultan external relations aimed at seeking support of the foreign power for a concerted action against the English, whose commercial company had become the most dominating political authority in India. His embassies to distant places like Paris and Constantinople, his numerous letters to France and Turkey, his invitation to Zaman Shah of Afghanistan to rescue the Mughals from English hands, and his correspondence with Napoleon, were all focused on the single point of his confrontation with the English.

13. Who among the following was the one to have escaped being hanged in the ‘Kakori Conspiracy Case’?
(a) Ashfaquallah Khan
(b) Rajendra Lahiri
(c) Ram Prasad Bismil
(d) Chandra Shekhar Azad
Answer-d
Explanation: Swaran Singh (uncle of Bhagat Singh), Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqullah Khan, Rajendra Lahiri and Roshan Singh were sentenced to death by the Court of Justice in the ‘Kakori Conspiracy Case’.

14. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(d) Rajendra Prasad
Answer-b
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was elected as the chairman of the drafting committee that was constituted by the Constituent Assembly to draft a constitution for the independent India; he was the first Law Minister of India; conferred Bharat Ratna in 1990. Dr. Ambedkar attended all the three Round Table Conferences in London and forcefully argued for the welfare of the “untouchables”.

15. Which Sultan of Delhi imposed Jaziya on the Brahmins also?
(a) Balban
(b) Firoz Tughlaq
(c) Allauddin Khilji
(d) Mohammad bin Tughlaq
Answer-b
Explanation: He refused to exempt the Brahmins from the payment of Jaziya. He persecuted a number of
heretical Muslim sects. He banned inhuman punishments. He prohibited Muslim women from going to worship in the grave of Saints. A brahmin was burnt publicly for questioning the Quran.

16. After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in
(a) Champaran
(b) Chauri Chaura
(c) Bardoli
(d) Dandi
Answer-a
Explanation: First civil disobedience Gandhi was requested by Raj kumar Shukla to look into The problem of the indigo planters of Champaran in Bihar. Gandhi had won the first battle of civil disobedience in India.

17. The only session of the Indian National Congress which was addressed by Mahatma Gandhi
was held at
(a) Amravati
(b) Belgaum
(c) Karachi
(d) Nagpur
Answer-b
Explanation: Belgaum was chosen as the venue of the 39th session of Indian National Congress in December 1924 under the Presidentship of Mahatma Gandhiji. The city served as a major military installation for the British Raj, primarily due to its proximity to Goa, which was then a Portuguese territory. Once the British left India, the Indian Government continued and still continues to have Armed forces installations in Belgaum.

18. Who among the following leaders of the Revolution of 1857 had the real name of Ram Chandra Pandurang?
(a) Kunwar Singh
(b) Nana Saheb
(c) Tatiya Tope
(d) Mangal Pandey
Answer-c
Explanation: Tatya Tope alias Ram Chandra Pandurang was born around 1813 in an orthodox Deshasth Brahmin family in Poona. His father, Pandurang Rao Tope, was an important noble at the court of the Peshwa Baji Rao II. He shifted his family with the ill-fated Peshwa to Bithur where his son became the most intimate friend of the Peshwa’s adopted son, Nana Dhundu Pant. The other associates of Tatya Tope were Rao Sahib and Rani Lakshmi Bai.

19. Who among the following led the agitation against the Partition of Bengal (1905)?
(a) Surendranath Banerjee
(b) C.R. Das
(c) Ashutosh Mukherjee
(d) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Answer-a
Explanation-
Moderate-led Anti-Partition Movement (1903-05)-Under Surendranath Banerjee,
K.K.Mitra. Prithwish Chandra Kay.
Movement under Extremists (1905-08)
Led by Tilak. Bipin Chandra Pal. Lajpat Rai, and Aurobindo Ghosh.

20. Who among the following leaders escaped from the prison and organized underground
activities during the ‘Quit India Movement’?
(a) J.B. Kriplani
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia
(c) Achyut Patwardhan
(d) Jai Prakash Narayan
Answer-d
Explanation-
Jai Prakash Narayan was arrested in 1942 for participating in the Quit India movement. In
November 1942, Jayaprakash along with five others escaped the prison and organized
underground activities during the ‘Quit India Movement’.

1. The common tree species in Nilgiri Hills is:
(A)Sal
(B)Pine
(C)Eucalyptus
(D)Teak
Answer: Eucalyptus.

2. Which of the following statements on Railway Budget 2011-12 is correct?
(A)There would be a 10% increase in fares for long distance train travel both by AC
and NONAC classes
(B)There would be 15% increase in freight rates on all goods other than food grains
(C)There would be 15% increase in passenger fares for all classes for long distance
and freights
(D)There would be no increase in fares for both suburban and long distance travel
Answer: D

3. The nuclear reactors which were damaged heavily due to strong Earthquake-cum-Tsunami that hit Japan on March 11, 2011 causing radiation leakage at:
(A)Fukushima
(B)Tokyo
(C)Kyoto
(D)None of them
Answer: Fukushima

4. First Indian Prime Minister to visit Siachen was ?
(A)Rajiv Gandhi
(B)Inder Kumar Gujaral
(C)Mammohan Singh
(D)None of them
Answer: Manmohan Singh

5. Which of the following books has been written by Kishwar Desai?
(A)The Red Devil
(B)Witness the night
(C)Tonight this Savage Rite
(D)Earth and Ashes
Answer: Witness the Night.

6. Which of the following folk / tribal dances is associated with Karnataka?
(A)Yakshagana
(B)Jatra
(C)Veedhi
(D)Jhora
Answer: Yakshagana

7. Who of the following received the Sangeet Natak Academi’s Ustad Bismillah Khan Puraskar for 2009 in theatre?
(A)Omkar Shrikant Dadarkar
(B)Ragini chander sarkar
(C)Abanti Chakraborty and Sukracharjya Rabha
(D)K Nellai Maniknandan
Answer: Abanti Chakraborty and Sukracharjya Rabha

8. Which of the following country did not win any of the FIFA cup in 2002, 2006 and 2010?
(A)Brazil
(B)Argentina
(C)Spain
(D)South Africa
Answer: South Africa

9. Who invented vaccination for small pox?
(A)Sir Frederick Grant Banting
(B)Sir Alexander Fleming
(C)Edward Jenner
(D)Loius Pasteur
Answer: Edward Jenner

10. Who was the first Indian to become the member of British parliament?
(A)Bankim Chandra Chaterjee
(B)W C Banerjee
(C)Dadabhai Naoroji
(D)None of the above
Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji

11. The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional Investors is called?
(A)FDI
(B)Portfolio Investment
(C)NRI Investment
(D)Foreign Indirect Investment
Answer: Investment in securities, funds, by FII is Foreign Indirect Investment

12. BT Seed is associated with which among the following?
(A)Rice
(B)Wheat
(C)Cotton
(D)Oil Seeds
Answer: Cotton

13. The headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is in ?
(A)Geneva
(B)Paris
(C)Vienna
(D)Washington
Answer: Vienna

14. In the Budget estimates of 2011-12, an allocation of Rs. 400 Crore has been made to bring in second green revolution in East in the rice based cropping system of ____?
(A)Assam and West Bengal
(B)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar & Jharkhand
(C)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar
(D)Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar, Jharkhand , Eastern Uttar Pradesh and
Chhattisgarh
Answer: Assam, West Bengal, Orissa, Bihar, Jharkhand, Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Chattisgarh.

15. In the Budget 2011-12, presented by the Finance Minister on 28.2.2011, the income tax limit for senior citizens has been increased to ?
(A)Rs. 2.50 Lakh
(B)Rs. 2.60 Lakh
(C)Rs. 2.80 Lakh
(D)Rs. 3.00 Lakh
Answer: Rs. 2.50 Lakh. Above 80, its 5 Lakh

16. If the Anglo Indian community does not get adequate representation in the Lok Sabha, two members of the community can be nominated by:
(A)Prime Minister
(B)President
(C)Speaker
(D)President in consultation with Parliament
Answer: President

17. For the election of President of India, a citizen should have completed the age of___?
(A)25 Years
(B)35 Years
(C)30 Years
(D)18 Years
Answer: 35 Years

18. Who said: “Good citizen makes a good state and bad citizen makes a bad state”?
(A)Plato
(B)Aristotle
(C)Rousseau
(D)Laski
Answer: Aristotle

19. Member of parliament will lose his membership if he is continuously absent from sessions for
(A)45 days
(B)60 days
(C)90 days
(D)365 days
Answer: 60 Days

20. In Indian , Residuary Powers are vested in ___?
(A)Union Government
(B)State Government
(C)Both Union and State Government
(D)Local Government
Answer: Union Government

21. Mention the place where Buddha attained enlightment?
(A)Sarnath
(B)Bodhgaya
(C)Kapilvastu
(D)Rajgriha
Answer: Bodhgaya

22. Coronation of Shivaji took place in which year?
(A)1627
(B)1674
(C)1680
(D)1670
Answer: 6 June 1674

23. The system of Dyarchy was introduced in ___?
(A)1909
(B)1919
(C)1935
(D)1945
Answer: 1919, Government of India Act 1919 had introduced the system of Dyarchy to govern the provinces of British India.

24. The editor of Young India and Harijan was ____?
(A)Nehru
(B)Ambedkar
(C)Mahatma Gandhi
(D)Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer: Mahatma Gandhi

25. Who of the following attended all the three round table conferences?
(A)B R Ambedkar
(B)M M Malviya
(C)Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D)Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: B R Ambedkar.

26. Which is the largest living bird on Earth?
(A)Emu
(B)Ostrich
(C)Albatross
(D)Siberian Crane
Answer: Ostrich

1. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of
(A) paper (B) rubber (C) ceramic (D) Mylar

2. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the
(A) infrared region (B) ultraviolet region (C) visible region (D)x-ray region

3. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectricloss should be respectively
(A) high and high (B) low and high (C) high and low (D) low and low.

4. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used suppress
(A) odd harmonics (B) even harmonics (C) fundamental component (D) dc component

5. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(A) mutual inductance between two coils only (B) self inductances of the two coils only (C) mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils (D) none

6. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is
(A) Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.
(B) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
(C) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
(D) The poynting vector points everywhere radially in to the volume between the plates.

7. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to
(A) Polarization (B) Conductivity (C) Structural homogeneties (D) Ionization

8. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silion
(A) Boron (B) Indium (C) Germanium (D) Antimony

9. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess
(A) high thermal conductivity and high melting point (B) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point (C) High thermal conductivity and low melting point (D) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point.

10. An SCR can only be turned off via it’s
(A) cathode (B) anode (C) gates (D) none

11. Gold is often diffused into silicon PN junction devices to
(A) increase the recombination rate (B) reduce the recombination rate
(C) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor (D) make silicon semi-metal

12 With n nodes and b branches a network will have
(A) (b+n) links (B) b – n +1 links (C) b -n-1 links (D) b + n + 1 links

13. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 45

14. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is
(A) always positive (B) always negative
(C) sometime positive, sometime negative (D) numerically less then its kinetic energy.

15. A delition MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no
(A) channel (B) gate (C) P-N junctions (D) substrate

16. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge cover the wire round strain guage is that
(A) it is more sensitive (B) it is more linear (C) it is less temperature dependent (D) it’s cost is low

17. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by
(A) thermally generated electrons and holes (B) diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
(C) migration of minority carriers across the junction (D) flow of drift current.

18. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter
(A) recombine with holes in the base (B) recombine in the emitter itself
(C) pass through the base to the collector (D) are stopped by the junction barrier

19. The deplition voltage for silicon diode at m0 bias is
(A) 0.5 volt (B) 0.3 volt (C) 0.7 volt (D) 1.1 volt

20. A UJT can
(A) be triggered by any one of it’s three terminals (B) not be triggered
(C) be triggered by two of its three terminal only (D) be triggered by all of its terminals only.

Answers :
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5.(C) 6. (C) 7.(B) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10.(B)
11. (B) 12. (B) 13.(B) 14. (B) 15.(C) 16. (A) 17.(C) 18. (C) 19. (C)
20. (C)

1. Name of the Egyptian President against whom people of Egypt revolted in 2011:
A. Hosni Mubarak
B. Pervez Musharraf
C. Omar Suleiman
D. Ahmed Shafeeque

2. Name the person who commissioned the Vallarpadam International Container Transshipment Terminal
A. Vayalar Ravi
B. Dr. Man Mohan Singh
C. A. K. Antony
D. G K Vasan

3. The Malayalam literature who received Jnan pith Award in 2007 :
A. Sugatha Kumari
B. Vijayalakshmi
C. O.N.V Kurup
D. Balachandran Chullikkad

4. In which of the following cities was the Indian Biodiversity Congress(2010) held?
A. Chennai
B. Chandigarh
C. Mumbai
D. Thiruvananthapuram

5. _____________ sector has established itself as the biggest contributor to the State’s GDP as per Kerala State’s Economic Review
A. Secondary Sector
B. Primary Sector
C. Tertiary Sector
D. None of these

6. Name the most significant characteristic of National Integration:
A. Social homogeneity
B. Unity
C. Economic identity
D. National loyalty

7. “The principle of respect for all life and the practice of non-injury to living thing’s is known in India as :
A. Ahimsa
B. Tolerance
C. Patience
D. None of These

8. NCW means :
A. National Commission For Women
B. National Commission For Workers
C. National Council For Workers
D. None of these

9.The Servants of India Society (1905) was formed to train people to serve the country by :
A. Tilak
B. Gandhiji
C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D. Gopalakrishna Gokhale

10. Who is popularly called “Vaikkom Hero” ?
A. R. K. Dhadabai
B. E V Ramaswami
C. C.N. Annadurai
D. Mannath Padmanabhan

11. Who founded the Indian National Congress?
A. Motilal Nehru
B. A.O. Hume
C. Lajpat Rai
D. Gokhale

12. Zionisn is a world movement of :
A. Hindus
B. Buddhists
C. Christians
D. Jews

13. Jallianwalla bagh is situated in :
A. Delhi
B. Mysore
C. Amritsar
D. Lahore

14. The first war of Indian independendance started at :
A. Mumbai
B. Chennai
C. Delhi
D. Meerut

15. “Life Divine” was written by :
A. Gandhiji
B. Tilak
C. Vivekananda
D. Aurobindo Ghosh

16. Name the “Land of the Morning Calm” :
A. Norway
B. Japan
C. Korea
D. Thailand

17. Sahyadri ranges refer to :
A. Eastern ghats
B. Western ghats
C. Saptura ranges
D. Siwaliks

18. The line beyond which snow never melts is
A. Latitude
B. Longitude
C. Snow line
D. Meridian

19. Gir Forest is in :
A. Karnataka
B. Bihar
C. Gujarat
D. Himachal Pradesh

20. A fountain of hot water issuing from a hole which extends deep into earth’s crust is called :
A. Delta
B. Canyon
C. Volcano
D. Geyser

21. Universal Adult Franchise creates :
A. economic equality
B. social equality
C. political equality
D. cultural equality

22. Who is the guardian of Fundamental rights in India ?
A. Judiciary
B. Legislature
C. Executive
D. Political parties

23 The year in which Panchayati Raj was introduced in India :
A.1960
B.1959
C. 1961
D. 1949

24. Which article of the constitution provides for the formation of the Finance Commission ?
A. Article 300
B. Article 280
C. Article 250
D. Article 290

25. The Gevernor can nominate to the Legislative Council of his state one member from this community :
A. Jewish
B. Muslim
C. Anglo-Indian
D. Parsi

1. Joule is the unit of—
(A) Force
(B) Power
(C) Energy
(D) Pressure

2. The audible range of hearing for average human beings is—
(A) 20 Hz to 20 KHz
(B) 2 Hz to 20 Hz
(C) 2 Hz to 20 KHz
(D) 2 KHz to 20 KHz

3. Tritium is an—
(A) Isobar of Hydrogen
(B) Isotope of Hydrogen
(C) Isobar of helium
(D) Isotope of helium

4. Which of the following ions helps in the
opening and closing of stomata ?
(A) Na+
(B) K+
(C) Ca++
(D) None of the above

5. Which of the following does not have plus (+) or minus (–) signs marked on it ?
(A) Resistor
(B) Ammeter
(C) Voltmeter
(D) Battery

6. Photosynthesis is a—
(A) Catabolic process
(B) Anabolic process
(C) Amphibolic process
(D) All of these

7. If a mirror forms an erect but diminished image of an object placed anywhere infront of it, is a—
(A) Concave Mirror
(B) Plane Mirror
(C) Convex Mirror
(D) Concave and convex Mirror (both)

8. The instrument to measure atmospheric pressure is called—
(A) Pyrometer
(B) Thermopile
(C) Barometer
(D) Manometer

9. Orange colour of the setting sun is due to—
(A) Reflection of light
(B) Diffusion of light
(C) Scattering of light
(D) Polarisation of light

10. What is the final colour of blue litmus when a dilute solution of NaOH is added to it ?
(A) Red
(B) Pink
(C) Orange
(D) Blue

11. Pick the odd one out—
(A) Fermentation
(B) Aerobic Respiration
(C) Anaerobic Respiration
(D) Breathing

12. Hypotonic solution as compared to Hypertonic solution has—
(A) More solute
(B) Less solute
(C) Same solute
(D) Nothing can be said about the amount of solute

13. Volt is the unit of—
(A) Charge
(B) Current
(C) Resistance
(D) Potential difference

14. Two resistors having resistances of 1 ohm and 2 ohms respectively are connected is series with a battery. The current through the 2 ohms resistor is 2 amperes. The current through the 1 ohm resistor will be—
(A) 0·5 amp
(B) 1 amp
(C) 2 amp
(D) 4 amp

15. The addition of which one of the following will decrease the pH value of water ?
(A) Caustic Soda
(B) Baking soda
(C) Salt
(D) Hydrochloric acid

16. The branch of science that deals with tumours is—
(A) Osteology
(B) Anatomy
(C) Oncology
(D) Urology

17. Pneumonia is a disease associated with—
(A) Liver
(B) Lungs
(C) Gums
(D) Kidney

18. ‘Decibel’ is a measure of—
(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Intensity of sound
(D) Energy

19. Which of the following have the highest frequency ?
(A) Heat waves
(B) Sound waves
(C) Ultraviolet rays
(D) Gamma rays

1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (A) Fermentation is an enzymatic transformation of organic substracts. Rest three do not need enzymatic transformation.
12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (C) In series connection same current flows through all the resistances. 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (D)

1. In English alphabet, which will be the eighth letter from the left of the fourth vowel ?
(A)H
(B)I
(C)G
(D)M
Ans: A

2. Find out the missing one
U, 0, I, ?
(A)E
(B)C
(C)S
(D)G
Ans: B

3. Which will be the next in following series?
AZY, BYX, CXW, DWV
(A)EUT
(B) FUT
(C)EVU
(D) GHS
Ans: C

4. Find out the next one in following series: BDF, CFI, DHL, EJO
(A)EIN
(B) JEN
(C)CFI
(D) FLR
Ans: D

5. If in a certain code BQMBAY is written as MY MY MY, then how would TAMIL NADU be written?
(A) TIATIATIA
(B) ALDALDALD
(C) MNUMNUMNU
(D) None of these
Ans: C

6. If in a certain symbolic language DOG is written as GOD and FOG is written as GOF, then how would MOB be written?
(A)NOB
(B) OBM
(C)BOM
(D) DOM
Ans: C

7. If in a certain code UMBRELLA is written as 12345678, then how would BEAR be written?
(A)3684
(B) 3594
(C)3584
(D) 3585
Ans: C

Directions– (Q.8-12) In each question, four words are given. Out of these four words, three are related in some way and one is different. Find the different word.
8.
(A) Girl
(B) Boy
(C) Woman
(D) Teacher
Ans: D

9
(A) China
(B) Nepal
(C)Bhutan
(D) Kolkata
Ans:D

10.
(A) January—June
(B) March—September
(C) June—November
(D) April-September
Ans: B
11.
(A) Sitar—Pt. Ravishankar
(B) Tabla—Allahrakha
(C)Bansuri—Hari Prasad Chaurasia
(D) Kathakali—Mrinalini
Ans: D

12.
(A) Prison
(C) Hand-cuffs
(B) Court
(D) Uniform
Ans: D

13. In which city there is no Metro Rail route?
(A)Hyderabad
(B) Ahmedabad
(C)Kolkata
(D) Mumbai
Ans: B

14. Main occupation of primitive man was?
(A) Hunting
(B) Cattle-rearing
(C) Food-gathering
(D) Fishing
Ans: A

15. In India the land irrigated by canals is
(A)10%
(B) 15%
(C)20%
(D) 31.6%
Ans: D

16.The reason of winter rain in North India is?
(A) Monsoon
(B) Storms
(C) Cyclone
(D) All
Ans: C

17. Air pressure is shown?
(A) By isobars
(B) By isotherms
(C) By isosalines
(D) By none of these
Ans: A

18. Who is the first Woman President of India ?
(A) Smt. Pratibha Devi Singh Patil
(B) Srnt. Sonia Gandhi
(C) Smt. Meira Kumar
(D) Late (Smt.) Indira Gandhi
Ans: A

19. Who gave the slogan of ‘Quit India’?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) J. L. Nehru
(C) Md. Ali Jinnah
(D) Subhas Chandra Bose
Ans: A

20.The Directive Principles of State Policy’ of Indian Constitution are
related to?
(A)Part-III
(B) Part-IV
(C)Part-V
(D) Part-II
Ans: B

Section B
Test of Mathematics
21. In any parallelogram ABCD, AC= BD. The value of Angle ABC will
Be?
(A)30°
(B) 60°
(C)90°
(D) 120°
Ans: C

22. What types of angles are they when there are two angles on circumference of a circle by any arc?
(A) One is two times the other
(B) One is three times the other
(C) Equal
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

23. What are the two consecutive numbers when difference of 5
times of smaller and 4 times of bigger is 3?
(A) 8, 9
(B) 7,8
(C) 6,7
(D) None of the above
Ans: B

24. Diagonal of a square is half of the diagonal of other square. The area of second square with respect to first will be?
(A) Two times
(B) Half
(C) Four times
(D) Eight times
Ans: C

25. The number of sides of a regular polygon, when each angle is 162°, is?
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 15
(D) 25
Ans: B

26 Ram finishes a work in 2 days,Hari finishes that work in 4 days. Then work will be finished in how many days when both work simultaneously?
(A)3/4 day
(B)4/3 days
(C)1/3 day
(D) 3 days

Ans: B
27. The numbers 1,2,3,4 1000 are multiplied together. The number of zeros at the end (on the right) of the product must be:
(A)30
(B)200
(C)211
(D)249
Ans: D

28. When a number is divided by 893, the remainder is 193. What will be the remainder when it is divided by 47?
(A)3
(B)5
(C)25
(D)33
Ans: B

29 The sum of the squares of two positive Integers is 100 and the difference of their squares is 28.
The sum of the numbers is
(A)12
(B)13
(C)14
(D)15
Ans: C

30. Find the odd man out 1,5,14, 30, 50,55,91
(A)5
(B) 50
(C)55
(D) 91
Ans: C

31. Find out wrong number in each sequence—
582, 605,588,611, 634, 617, 600
(A)634
(B) 611
(C)605
(D) 600
Ans: A

32. A boy was asked to multiply a number by 25. He instead multiplied the number by 52 and got the answer 324 more than the correct answer. The number to be multiplied was?
(A)12
(B) 15
(C)25
(D) 32
Ans: A

33. If 2 tables and 3 chairs cost Rs.3500 and 3 tables and 2 chairs cost Rs. 4000, then how much does a table cost?
(A) As. 500
(B) As. 750
(C) As. 1000
(D) Rs. 1500
Ans: C

34. The sum of first five prime numbers is?
(A) 11
(B)18
(C) 26
(D)28
Ans: D

35. Three numbers are in the ratio1 2 :3 and their H. C. F. is 12.
The numbers are?
(A)4,8,12
(B) 5, 10, 15
(C) 10, 20,30
(D) 12,24,36
Ans: D

36. Income of a company doubles after every one year. If the initial income was Rs. 4 lakhs, what would be the income after 5 years?
(A) As. 1 24 crores
(B) Rs. 1 28 crores
(C) As. 252 crores
(D) As. 256 crores
Ans: B

37. Water boils at 212° F or 100°C and freeze at 32°F or 0°C. If the temperature of a particular day is 35°C, it is equivalent to?
(A)85°F
(B) 90°F
(C)95°F
(D) 99°F
Ans: C

38. Insert the missing number— 16,33,65,131,261,……..
(A) 523
(B) 521
(C) 613
(D) 721
Ans: A

39. 3251 + 587+ 369— ? = 3007
(A) 1250
(B) 1300
(C) 1375
(D) 1200
Ans: D

40. A Bazar has an average of 510 people on Sundays and 240 on other days. The average number of people per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is?
(A) 250
(C) 280
(B)276
(D)285
Ans: D

Test of Language English
41. Choose the correct preposition
The river flows…….. the bridge.
(A)below
(B) under
(C)into
(D) to
Ans: B

42. Find out the word correctly spelt—
(A) Accesible
(B) Accesibel
(C) Accessible
(D) Acessible
Ans: C

43. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the Bold word to till in the blank
People often prefer ambiguity to ……..
(A)clarity
(B) perversity
(C) rationality
(D) certainty
Ans: D

44. Pick out the correct synonym to the given word
OBSCENE
(A)Objectionable
(B)Indecent
(C) Displeasing
(D)Condemnable
Ans: B

45. Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives
to fill in the blank
Since one cannot read every book, one should be content
with making a ………selection
(A)normal
(B) standard
(C)sample
(D) judicious
Ans: D

46. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word
TRANSPARENT
(A)Coloured
(B) Childlike
(C)Opaque
(D) Imminent
Ans: C

47. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be
substituted for the given words
A workman who fits and repairs pipes
(A)Mechanic
(B) Blacksmith
(C)Plumber
(D) Technocrat
Ans: C

48. Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives
To fill in the blank
In hot weather I like lying in the……….of a tree.
(A)shadow
(B)shelter
(C)protection
(D) shade
Ans: D

49 Choose the alternative which expresses the best meaning of
The given words

To give up the ghost
(A)To die
(B)To make false appearance
(C)To terrify others by acting in suspicious manner
(D)To leave useless pursuits
Ans: A

Find Nearest Meaning
50. Addicted
(A) wild
(B)enhanced
(C) sentenced
(D) incline
Ans: D

51. Bewilder
(A)Cross
(B) Seize
(C)Puzzle
(D) Annoy
Ans: C
52. Destitute
(A) Sick
(B) Poor
(C) thin
(D) Angry
Ans: B

53 Genteel

(A)Clever
(B) Polite
(C)Hopeful
(D) Lovable
Ans: B

54. Camouflage
(A) Deject
(B) Disappear
(C) Drown
(D) Conceal
Ans: B

55. A thing liable to be easily broken
(A) Breakable
(B) Ductile
(C)Brittle
(D) Delicate
Ans: C

56. Animal living on land and in water
(A) Ambiguous
(B) Pacify
(C) Amphibian
(D) Ambivalend
Ans: C

57. One who does not care for literature or and—
(A) Barbarian
(B) Philistine
(C) Primitive
(D) Literate
Ans: B

Find the Correct Spelling
58. (A) Comitment
(B) Comittment
(C) Committment
(D) Commitment
Ans: D

59
(A) Fulifil
(B) Fulfil
(C) Fulfill
(D) FulIfill
Ans: A

60.
(A) Defendant
(B) Defendent
(C) Defandent
(D) Defandant
Ans: A